What gives?

What was with the Daily Lectionary this morning? The Old Testament readings from the Daily Lectionary over the past few weeks have been going through the Book of Job. Job is one of my favorite Old Testament books for many reasons. However, yesterday, we finally had the last chapter of Job. And I assumed we were done with it. But today, we had a random reading from the 28th Chapter of Job.

While a beautifully poetic passage, I was curious why the Lectionary felt it needed a rebuttal, particularly this one, to the closing chapter yesterday? I know bible scholars go bananas over the "happy ending" in Job that many believe is a sanitized later addition to the text. I am not completely sold on those arguments because, like most Biblical Textual and Source Criticisms, there is an awful lot of hearsay and conjecture, but scant, if any, actual proof that would stand up in any court of law, or what I call a "House of Cards" exegesis.

But, even if we had to end the Job readings with another section other than the text's actual ending, why this particular text? In my mind, this is actually reverting back to a time in the story line when Job is still whining and challenging God to a fair trial. This discourse happens before God descends in the whirlwind to "pin Job's ears back" as we say down South.

I just don't understand why the Lectionary chose this one text with which to end the readings. It seems out of context to me.

Any thoughts?

Comments

TLF+ said…
If the critics are trying to balance out what they perceive to be a false "happy ending," then they are hoist with their own petard. They've used the lectionary to concoct an "ending" that suits them - as you say, they've appended a rebuttal.

You are right - it is a beautiful passage and I reread it at least once just to savor that. But why not leave it where it should be in the course readings of the text?

Ironically, it's because we reject the whole thrust of the lesson and decide that we see the truths that God missed!
9/16/2010 9:47 AM
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