Jesus and "The Law"

 I had a questions posed as such:

"One chapter I've always been uncertain of Matthew 5:17 to 5:20.

He says the laws of the old testament are to remain until all things have taken place - was his death the all things taken place? Or does he mean until the next coming?
I'm pretty sure every Catholics believes in the commandments but there are some pretty obscure rules and laws in Deutronomy and Levictus (sic)."

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My response:

One of the strange things about language is that if a term or a word can have both a positive and negative meaning, it will eventually skew negative and the positive usage of the term will largely become archaic and eventually fall out of use entirely and even forgotten in most instances. This is almost a universal truism in linguistics. 

We also need to unravel some Western programming. In the post-Reformation world in the West, the term "The Law" has skewed negative. You don't think about "The Law" in any context largely in a positive way. If you are at a part and "The Law" shows up, that's usually a bad thing. Even in terms of things like scientific "laws" of physics, they are usually viewed as a scientific principle, yes, but also in the same way that "the law" is viewed in political parlance. This goes back to at least the writings of John Locke in the 1600s in Western thought (and before that really, but Locke is a milestone on this. "The Law" as he defined it was a negative abridgement of freedom. His ideas were that man is in his nature free, but we have to give up some of that freedom so that we have a civilized society with rules so people aren't going around on vigilante revenge killing sprees and it's a total "the strong survive and the weak perish" kind of world. We put up with "The Law" so we can have an ordered society with justice and rule of law and all that. 

It's not our nature, but an inconvenience, so Locke says. In other words, Law is a necessary evil to prevent chaos. I can go on and on about how that's played out in Western politics and philosophy, but my point is that "The Law" has come to mean something negative. Something that is a necessary evil to prevent the greatest evil of anarchy and chaos, which is the greatest evil because chaos is the precise opposite of the Divine order. Now, whether one agrees with Locke's premises or not is not relevant here. What is relevant is how we have been programmed in the West to hear "The Law" as a negative term by its nature, but that is a *very* Western view. And it is not the world view of how non-Western Jews would have heard or understood the term "The Law."

I came to this realization years ago. I was on a bus with this guy who was reading the Bible in Hebrew. I was in seminary at the time, and I happened to ask him what he was studying. He was very suspicious of this 6-foot something dude. I explained I had studied a bit of Hebrew in seminary, making the mistake of saying, "Hebrew, and several other dead languages." Three words: wrong answer, McFly! Bless his heart, the guy went on this rant about how Hebrew was not a dead language because it was the language of Torah, and he said outright, "The Law gives us life. The Law is God's Word to us. The Law is life!" 

Now, while I would likely still disagree with this gentleman about a good many things, he made an excellent point that I have never forgotten, particularly when it comes to passages like this that you reference. To this gentleman, the notion that The Law was a negative abridgement of freedom was anathema to the study of the Bible. The Law was, in fact, a positive bridging to freedom, because that freedom comes from God. It is a revelation of God's divine order. 

Now, as Christians, we have a different understanding of that Law and how it applies in the light of Christ's fulfillment of that Law. I can go on and on about that, but we have to be very careful not to view The Law, as it was given to Moses, as this ancient set of rules that was intended as a negative abridgement of freedom and write off the whole thing. Luther, for example, was big on this idea that there was "Law' and there was "Grace" and ne'er the twain shall meet. But that sets up several dangerous false dichotomies, as if God gave the Law as an unfulfillable group of persnickety negative and oppressive laws that no one can possibly hope to follow or ever keep and that have no value whatsoever. That was not the point of the Law. The Law was to be a life giving revelation of the Divine order so that God could begin to have a relationship, first with His people Israel, and then with the whole world through the revelation of Christ. 

That's what Jesus is talking about in this passage. The Law was given as a life giving bridge to the Divine so that ultimately the world would come to know Him through His Son, Jesus, who was the fulfillment of the Law, that bridge to the Divine. The Law was not a negative abridgement of freedom, given to simpletons by a perverse deity as a code that the simpletons no possible way of living by or even of understanding, a la Nietzsche's satire called Thus Spake Zarathustra.   

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